NEETPG Class 3 Pathology Heamatology: 1

Instructions. Answer all questions. Fill exactly one bubble per question on the OMR sheet.

1. 1

   1.

   Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect in the GPI anchor synthesis, leading to a deficiency of CD55 and CD59 on red blood cells?

   1. (A)

      Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

   2. (B)

      Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

   3. (C)

      Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

   4. (D)

      Hereditary Spherocytosis

   Show answerHide answer

   Answer: (C)

   Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

   Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) is caused by a somatic mutation in the PIGA gene, leading to defective GPI anchor synthesis and subsequent deficiency of CD55 and CD59, which are crucial for complement regulation.

   1 · Easy

2. 2.

   A 45-year-old male presents with fatigue, splenomegaly, and a peripheral blood smear showing tear-drop cells, nucleated red blood cells, and a leucoerythroblastic picture. Bone marrow biopsy reveals fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

   1. (A)

      Essential Thrombocythemia

   2. (B)

      Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

   3. (C)

      Polycythemia Vera

   4. (D)

      Primary Myelofibrosis

   Show answerHide answer

   Answer: (D)

   Primary Myelofibrosis

   Primary Myelofibrosis is characterized by bone marrow fibrosis, extramedullary hematopoiesis (leading to splenomegaly and leucoerythroblastosis), and the presence of tear-drop cells on the peripheral smear.

   1 · Medium

3. 3.

   What is the primary mechanism of action of Imatinib in treating Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

   1. (A)

      Interference with DNA synthesis

   2. (B)

      Disruption of microtubule formation

   3. (C)

      Blockade of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase

   4. (D)

      Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

   Show answerHide answer

   Answer: (C)

   Blockade of BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase

   Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that specifically targets the BCR-ABL fusion protein, which is the hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia, thereby inhibiting its constitutively active tyrosine kinase activity.

   1 · Easy

4. 4.

   A 30-year-old pregnant woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Her peripheral blood smear shows microcytic hypochromic red blood cells. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

   1. (A)

      Folic acid supplementation

   2. (B)

      Erythropoietin injections

   3. (C)

      Vitamin B12 supplementation

   4. (D)

      Oral iron supplementation

   Show answerHide answer

   Answer: (D)

   Oral iron supplementation

   For iron deficiency anemia, the most appropriate initial treatment is oral iron supplementation to replenish the body's iron stores and support red blood cell production.

   1 · Easy

5. 5.

   Which of the following laboratory findings is most characteristic of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

   1. (A)

      Normal platelet count and positive D-dimer

   2. (B)

      Increased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and normal platelet count

   3. (C)

      Elevated prothrombin time (PT) and normal platelet count

   4. (D)

      Severe thrombocytopenia and presence of anti-PF4/heparin antibodies

   Show answerHide answer

   Answer: (D)

   Severe thrombocytopenia and presence of anti-PF4/heparin antibodies

   Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is characterized by severe thrombocytopenia, often occurring 5-10 days after heparin exposure, and the presence of antibodies against the heparin-platelet factor 4 (PF4) complex.

   1 · Hard

— End of the paper · updated 9 October 2026 —